Here you will find answers to Drag and Drop Questions

Question 1

Click and drag the QoS feature type on the left to the category of QoS mechanism on the right.

Answer:

+ classification and marking: ACLs
+ congestion avoidance: WRED
+ traffic conditioners: CAR
+ congestion management: LLQ
+ link efficiency: LFI

Explanation

Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined.Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.

Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay.

Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence.

Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR).

Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ).

LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would
be assigned to a regular class.

Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a  voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.

(Reference: Cisco Press Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions)

Question 2

Click and drag the Cisco Self-Defending Network term on the left to the SDN description on the right. Not all terms will be used.

Answer:

+ provides secure network access, isolates and controls infected devices attempting access: Trust and Identity Management
+ uses encryption and authentication to provide secure transport across untrusted networks: Secure Connectivity
+ uses security integrated into routers, switches, and appliances to defend against attacks: Threat Defense
+ integrates security into the network to identify, prevent, and adapt to threats: Cisco Self-Defending Network

Explanation

Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access.

We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship.

The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…

Question 3

Match the Cisco security solution on the left to its function on the right.

Answer:

+ protects the endpoints (desktops, laptops and servers): Cisco Security Agent
+ provides multiple functions as a high performance security appliance: ASA
+ prevents DDoS attacks: Anomaly Guard and Detector
+ provides Web-Based VPN services: SSL Service Module
+ prevents attacks inline: IPS Appliance

Question 4

 

Answer:

+ limits the number of frames transmitted before an acknowledgement is received: window size
+ reduces data size to save transmission time, optimizing the use of WAN bandwidth: data compression
+ allows network administrators to manage the varying demands generated by applications: queuing
+ discards packets or modifies some aspect of them (such as IP precedence): traffic policing

Question 5

Place the PPDIOO Methodology in the correct order

Optimize	Step 1
Design	Step 2
Prepare	Step 3
Implement	Step 4
Operate	Step 5
Plan	Step 6

Answer:

Step 1: Prepare
Step 2: Plan
Step 3: Design
Step 4: Implement
Step 5: Operate
Step 6: Optimize

Here you will find answers to Design Fundamentals Questions

Question 1

Which of these is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?

A. 2×8 kHz x 4-bit code words
B. 8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C. 2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D. 2×4 kHz x 8-bit code words

Answer: D

Explanation

While the human ear can sense sounds from 20 to 20,000 Hz, and speech encompasses sounds from about 200 to 9000 Hz, the telephone channel was designed to operate at about 300 to 3400 Hz. This economical range carries enough fidelity to allow callers to identify the party at the far end and sense their mood. Nyquist decided to extend the digitization to 4000 Hz, to capture higher-frequency sounds that the telephone channel may deliver. Therefore, the highest frequency for voice is 4000 Hz. According to Nyquist theory, we must double the highest frequency, so 2x4kHz = 8kHz.

Each sample will be encoded into a 8-bit code. Therefore 8kHz x 8-bit code = 64 Kbps (notice about the unit Kbps: 8kHz = 8000 samples per second so 8000 x 8-bit = 64000 bit per second = 64 Kilobit per second = 64 Kbps)

Note:

Nyquist theory:

“When sampling a signal (e.g., converting from an analog signal to digital), the sampling frequency must be greater than twice the bandwidth of the input signal in order to be able to reconstruct the original perfectly from the sampled version.”

Question 2

Which three of these are components of the North American Numbering Plan? (Choose three)

A. Numbering Plan Area
B. country code
C. prefix
D. zone
E. line number
F. trunk channel

Answer: A C E

Explanation

NANP has the address format of NXX-NXX-XXXX, where N is any number from 2 to 9 and X is any number from 0 to 9. The first three digits identify the numbering plan area and are commonly called the area code. The address is further divided into the office code (also known as prefix) and line number. The prefix is three digits, and the line number is four digits. The line number identifies the phone.

Question 3

A customer has the following Enterprise Campus design requirements:

at least 10 Gbps of bandwidth
network runs of up to 40km
no concern for transmission medium cost

Which transmission medium should you recommend to this customer?

A. shielded twisted pair
B. unshielded twisted pair
C. multimode fiber
D. single-mode fiber
E. wireless

Answer: D

Explanation

Below is the comparison of transmission media

Media	Bandwidth	Distance
Twisted pair	Up to 1 Gbps	100 m
Multimode fiber	Up to 1 Gbps	2 km (FE) 550 m (GE)
Single-mode fiber	10 Gbps	90 km (FE) 40 km (GE)
Wireless	54 Mbps (27 Mbps effective)	500 m at 1 Mbps

(Reference from CCDA Official Exam Certification Guide. Some other books have different figures but we should answer it according to the “Official” book)

Question 4

In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?

A. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
B. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
C. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
D. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
E. over 200 users and a two-tier design

Answer: D

Question 5

Which layer is the distribution layer?

A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Answer: B

Question 6

Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures?(Choose two)

A. A good implementation plan.
B. A successful test network test.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.

Answer: C D

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit.

A standard, Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?

A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4

Answer: B

Question 8

Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step of each phase in a design implementation plan? (Choose three)

A. step description
B. design document references
C. easy guidelines in case of failure
D. estimated implementation time
E. simple implementation guidelines
F. estimated rollback time in case of failure

Answer: A B D

Question 9

Which three terms describe the primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design hierarchy? (Choose three)

A. provides end-user connectivity
B. provides high speed transport
C. provides QoS services
D. enforces security policies
E. provides WAN connections
F. connects access devices to the core backbone

Answer: C D F

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit

Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two)

A. A is the Server Farm layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
B. A is the Server Farm layer and D is the Building Access layer.
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer.
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer.
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer.

Answer: B C

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?

A. QoS should be performed only in the core.
B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.

 

Answer: D

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit

Which element or elements of the existing network infrastructure does this network map emphasize?

A. network services 
B. network protocols
C. the OSI data link layer
D. network applications

 

Answer: D

Question 13

Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two)

A. improves flexibility
B. facilitates implementation
C. lowers implementation costs
D. improves customer participation in the design process

 

Answer: A B

Note:

The six modules of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture are:

+ Enterprise Campus module
+ Enterprise Edge module
+ Enterprise WAN module
+ Enterprise Data Center module
+ Enterprise Branch module
+ Enterprise Teleworker module

The purpose of the access layer is to grant end-user access to network resources.

The distribution layer provides aggregation for the access layer devices and uplinks to the core layer. It is also used to enforce policy within the network.

The core layer provides a high-speed, highly available backbone designed to switch packets as fast as possible.

Question 1

Data link switching is typically used in which Enterprise Campus Module layer?

A. Server Farm
B. Campus Core
C. Building Access
D. Building Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity

Answer: C

Explanation

In the most general model, the Building Access layer uses Layer 2 switching (or Data link switching), and the Building Distribution layer uses multilayer switching.

Question 2

Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)

A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.

Answer: C E

Explanation

Data link layer switches are often used to connect end devices in the access layer (while distribution and core layer typically use multilayer switches -> C is correct.

The use of Layer 2 clustering requires the servers to be Layer 2–adjacent -> E is correct.

Question 3

Which two statements about the Enterprise Data Center Aggregation submodule are correct? (Choose two)

A. it provides Layer 4 7 services
B. it should never support STP
C. it is the critical point for control and application services
D. it typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data center to the core

Answer: A C

Explanation

This submodule provides Layer 4 through Layer 7 services through security and application service devices such as load-balancing devices, SSL offloading devices, firewalls, and IDS devices.

The Data Center Aggregation (distribution) layer aggregates the uplinks from the access layer to the Data Center Core layer and is the critical point for control and application services.

Question 4

Which of the following is a modular component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture framework?

A. Teleworker
B. E-Commerce
C. Internet Connectivity
D. Building Distribution
E. WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN

Answer: D

Question 5

DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge. To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two)

A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN

Answer: B E

Explanation

The Enterprise Edge Module consists of the following modules:

+ E-commerce module: includes the devices and services necessary for an organization to provide e-commerce applications.
+ Internet connectivity module: provides enterprise users with Internet access.
+ VPN and remote access module: terminates VPN traffic and dial-in connections from external users.
+ WAN/ MAN and site-to-site module: provides connectivity between remote sites and the central site over various WAN technologies.

In these modules, only E-Commerce and Internet Connectivity modules will be directly related to the three ISPs.

Question 6

Which statement decribes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model?

A. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Access layer and Enterprise branch.
B. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Server Farm layer and Enterprise branch.
C. Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Core layer and Remote Access/VPN module with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module.
D. Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Distribution layer with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module.

Answer: B

Explanation

For the Enterprise Campus, DHCP and internal DNS servers should be located in the Server Farm and they should be redundant. External DNS servers can be placed redundantly at the service provider facility and at the Enterprise branch.

Question 7

Which two modules are found in the Enterprise Edge functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two)

A. Teleworker
B. WAN/MAN
C. Server Farm
D. E-Commerce
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access/VPN

Answer: D E

Explanation

I am not sure about the answers! The Enterprise Edge functional area consists of four main modules: E-commerce module, Internet Connectivity module, Remote Access and VPN module, WAN and MAN and Site-to-Site VPN module. So B and F are correct too. Hope someone will describe this question clearly after taking the exam!

Here you will find answers to Cisco SONA Architecture Questions

Question 1

The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two)

A. Interactive Services
B. Business Applications
C. Network Infrastructure
D. Collaboration Applications
E. WAN/Internet

Answer: A C

Explanation

The SONA framework defines the following three layers:

+ Networked Infrastructure layer: Where all the IT resources interconnect across a converged network foundation. The objective of this layer is to provide connectivity, anywhere and anytime.
+ Interactive Services layer: Includes both application networking services and infrastructure services. This layer enables efficient allocation of resources to applications and business processes delivered through the networked infrastructure.
+ Application layer: Includes business applications and collaboration applications. The objective of this layer is to meet business requirements and achieve efficiencies by leveraging the Interactive Services layer.

With above information, you can answer question 2 and 3 below.

Question 2

Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three)

A. Application
B. Physical
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Interactive Services
F. Networked Infrastructure

Answer: A E F

Question 3

A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation.
The layer’s IT resources include servers, storage, and clients.
The layer represents how resources exist across the network.
The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity.

Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being described?

A. Application
B. Physical
C. Integrated Transport
D. Interactive Services
E. Networked Infrastructure

Answer: E

Note:

Cisco has formalized a network’s life cycle into six phases: Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and
Optimize. These phases are collectively known as PPDIOO.

Question 1

At which stage in the PPDIOO process would you analyze a customer’s network in order to discover opportunities for network improvement?

A. Plan
B. Prepare
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Design Assessment

Answer: C

Explanation

Design phase: Developing a detailed design is essential to reducing risk, delays, and the total cost of network deployments. A design aligned with business goals and technical requirements can improve network performance while supporting high availability, reliability, security, and scalability.

(Reference: http://www.ciscozine.com/2009/01/29/the-ppdioo-network-lifecycle/)

Question 2

Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?

A. Order the equipment.
B. Develop a high-level migration plan.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
E. Identify which network management protocol will be used for which function.

Answer: D

Explanation

The Implement phase begins after the design phase has been finished. In this phase, new devices are installed, configured and tested according to the design specifications.

Question 3

According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design? (Choose four)

A. faster ROI
B. improved business agility
C. increased network availability
D. faster access to applications and services
E. lower total cost of network ownership
F. better implementation team engagement

Answer: B C D E

Explanation

The PPDIOO life cycle provides four main benefits:

+ It improves business agility by establishing business requirements and technology strategies.
+ It increases network availability by producing a sound network design and validating the network
operation.
+ It speeds access to applications and services by improving availability, reliability, security, scalability, and
performance.
+ It lowers the total cost of ownership by validating technology requirements and planning for infrastructure
changes and resource requirements.

(Reference: Cisco CCDA Official Exam Certification Guide, 3rd Edition)

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit

During which stage of the PPDIOO process are implementation procedures prepared?

A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize

Answer: C

Explanation

The Design phase includes network diagrams and an equipment list. The project plan is updated with more granular
information for implementation. This is the so-called “prepare implementation procedures”.

Question 5

Which two design methodology steps relate, at least in part, to the implement phase of the PPDIOO process? (Choose two)

A. verifying the network
B. testing design
C. determining customer requirements
D. characterizing the existing network
E. establishing the organizational requirements

Answer: A B

Explanation

The Implement phase relates to implement new devices, including verifying and testing so A and B are the most suitable options.

“Determining customer requirements” occurs in the Prepare phase, which identifies requirements and builds a conceptual architecture.

“Characterizing the existing network” belongs to the Plan phase; this step is performed to determine the infrastructure necessary to meet the requirements.

In the “establishing the organizational requirements” step, the network topology is designed to meet the requirements and close the network gaps identified in the previous steps. This step is related to the Design Phase of the PPDIOO process.

Question 6

Which two statements represent advantages that the top-down network design process has over the bottom-up network design process? (Choose two)

A. is able to provide the big picture
B. utilizes previous experience
C. takes less time to design a network
D. identifies appropriate technologies first
E. provides a design for current and future development

Answer: A E

Explanation

By incorporating the organization’s requirements, the top-down network design process provide the big picture that meets current and future requirements.

Question 7

Which statement identifies a benefit obtained when using a top-down network design plan?

A. allows quick responses to design requests
B. facilitates design based on previous experience
C. incorporates customer organizational requirements
D. is less time-consuming than using a bottom-up approach
E. provides a more detailed picture of the desired network

Answer: C

Explanation

The top-down approach begins with the organization’s requirements before looking at technologies. Network designs are tested using a pilot or prototype network before moving into the Implement phase.

Here you will find answers to Network Management Questions

Question 1

What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three)

A. Use organizational input.
B. Perform a traffic analysis.
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.

Answer: A B E

Question 2

Which of the following Cisco router services performs network traffic analysis to assist in documenting a customer’s existing network?

A. MRTG
B. NetMon
C. NetFlow
D. SNMP MIB compiler

Answer: C

Question 3

You are performing an audit of a customer’s existing network and need to obtain the following router information:
interfaces
running processes
IOS image being executed

Which command should you use?

A. show version
B. show tech-support
C. show startup-config
D. show running-config
E. show processes memory

Answer: B

Question 4

Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data for billing network usage?

A. BGP
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. QoS
D. RMON 
E. NetFlow

Answer: E

Question 5

Which network management protocol allows a network device to have vendor-specific objects for management?

A. SNMPv1
B. SNMP v2
C. SNMP v3
D. MIB
E. RMON1
F. RMON2

Answer: D

Question 6

Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three)

A. staff input
B. visual inventory
C. network audit
D. traffic analysis
E. server statistics

Answer: A C D